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2015年安徽高考英语试题及参考答案

2015年安徽高考英语试题及参考答案
2015年安徽高考英语试题及参考答案

2015年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(安徽卷)

英语

本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分,第Ⅰ卷第1至第14页,第Ⅱ卷第15至第16页。全卷满分150分,考试时间120分。

第Ⅰ卷

第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分)

第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. What time is it now?

A. 9:10.

B. 9:50.

C. 10:00.

2. What does the woman think of the weather?

A. It’s nice.

B. It’s warm.

C. It’s cold.

3. What will the man do?

A. Attend a meeting.

B. Give a lecture.

C. Leave his office.

4. What is the woman’s opinion about the course?

A. Too hard.

B. Worth taking.

C. Very easy.

5. What does the woman want the man to do?

A. Speak louder.

B. One week.

C. Two weeks.

第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料,回答6、7题。

6. How long did Michael stay in China?

A. Five days.

B. He wants to watch TV.

C. He is too lazy.

7. What did Michael go last year?

A. Russia.

B. Norway.

C. India.

听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。

8. What food does Sally like?

A. Chicken.

B. Fish.

C. Eggs.

9. What are the speakers going to do?

A. Cook dinner.

B. Go shopping.

C. Order dishes.

听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。

10. Where are the speakers?

A. In a hospital.

B. In the office.

C. At home.

11. When is the report due?

A. Thursday.

B. Friday.

C. Next Monday.

12. What does George suggest Stephanie do with the report?

A. Improve it.

B. Hand it in later.

C. Leave it with him.

听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。

13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?

A. Salesperson and customer.

B. Homeowner and cleaner.

C. Husband and wife.

14. What kind of department do the speakers prefer?

A. One with two bedrooms.

B. One without furniture.

C. One near a market.

15. How much rent should one pay for the one-bedroom apartment?

A. $350.

B. $400.

C. $415.

16. Where is the apartment the speakers would like to see?

A. On Lake Street.

B. On Market Street.

C. On South Street.

听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。

17. What percentage of the world’s tea exports go to Britain?

A. Almost 15%.

B. About 30%.

C. Over 40%.

18. Why do tea tasters taste tea with milk?

A. Most British people drink tea that way.

B. Tea tastes much better with mild.

C. Tea with milk is healthy.

19. Who suggests a price for each tea?

A. Tea tasters.

B. Tea exporters.

C. Tea companies.

20. What is the speaker talking about?

A. The life of tea tasters.

B. Afternoon tea in Britain.

C. The London Tea Trade Centre.

第二部分英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)

第一节单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。21.—Can you come to a party on Saturday, Peter?

—Oh, I’m already going out, I’m afraid.

A. What a pity.

B. Don’t ask!

C. How come?

D. So what?

22.If you come to visit China, you will _____ a culture of amazing depth and variety.

A. develop

B. create

C. substitute

D. eperience

23._______ scientists have learned a lot about the universe, there is much we still don’t know.

A. Once

B. Since

C. Though

D. Unless

24.Just as I got to the school gate, I realized I ______ my book in the cafe.

A. have left

B. had left

C. would leave

D. was leaving

25.A ship in harbor is safe, but that’s not _______ ships are built for.

A. What

B. whom

C. why

D. when

26.I’m so sorry to all those volunteers because they helped my terrible day end happily.

A. special

B. superior

C. grateful

D. attractive

27.______ the difference between the two research findings will be one of the worst mistakes you make.

A. Ignore

B. Ignoring

C. Ignored

D. Having ignored

28.Some experts think reading is the fundamental skill upon ______ school education depends.

A. it

B. that

C. whose

D. which

29.It is reported that a space station _______ on the moon in years to come.

A. will be building

B. will be built

C. has been building

D. has been built

30.There is no need to tell me your answer now. Give it some _____ and then let me know.

A. thought

B. support

C. protection

D. authority

31.They gave money to the old people’s home either ______ or through their companies..

A. legally

B. sincerely

C. personally

D. deleberately

32.It is lucky we booked a room, or we _______ nowhere to stay now.

A. had

B. had had

C. would have

D. would have had

33.They believe that there are transport developments _____ that will bring a lot of changes for the better.

A. out of date

B. out of order

C. around the clock

D. around the corner 34.______ he once felt like giving up, he now has the determination to push further and keep on going.

A. Where

B. As

C. In case

D. Now that

35.— How is your table tennis these days? Still playing?

—. I just don’t seem to find the time these days.

A. Tha t’s right

B. No, not much

C. That’s great

D. Don’t worry

第二节完型填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)

阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

In our modern world, when something wears out, we throw it away and buy a new one. The 36 is that countries around the world have growing mountains of 37 because people are throwing out more and more rubbish than ever before.

How did we 38 a throwaway society? First of all, it is now easier to 39 an object than to spend time and money to repair. 40 modern manufacturing (制造业) and technology, companies are able

to produce products quickly and inexpensively. Products are plentiful and 41 .

Another cause is our 42 of disposable (一次性的) products. As 43 people, we are always looking for 44 to save time and make our lives easier. Companies 45 thousands of different kinks of disposable products: paper plates, plastic cups, and cameras, to name a few.

Our appetite for new products also 46 to the problem. We are 47 buying new things. Advertisements persuade us that 48 is better and that we will be happier with the latest products. The result is that we 49 useful possessions to make room for new ones.

All around the world, we can see the 50 of this throwaway lifestyle. Mountains of rubbish just keep getting bigger. To 51 the amount of rubbish and to protect the 52 , more governments are requiring people to recycle materials. 53 , this is not enough to solve (解决) our problem.

Maybe there is another way out. We need to repair our possessions 54 throwing them away. We also need to rethink our attitudes about 55 . Repairing our possessions and changing our spending habits may be the best way to reduce the amount of rubbish and take care of our environment.

36. A. key B. reason C. project D. problem

37. A. gifts B. rubbish C. debt D. products

38. A. face B. become C. observe D. change

39. A. hide B. control C. replace D. withdraw

40. A. Thanks to B. As to C. Except for D. Regardless of

41. A. safe B. funny C. cheap D. powerful

42. A. love B. lack C. prevention D. division

43. A. sensitive B. kind C. brave D. busy

44. A. ways B. places C. jobs D. friends

45. A. donate B. receive C. produce D. preserve

46. A. adapts B. returns C. responds D. contributes

47. A. tired of B. addicted to C. worried about D. ashamed for

48. A. newer B. stronger C. higher D. larger

49. A. pick up B. pay for C. hold on to D. throw away

50. A. advantages B. purposes C. functions D. consequences

51. A. show B. record C. decrease D. measure

52. A. technology B. environment C. consumers D. brands

53. A. However B. Otherwise C. Therefore D. Meanwhile

54. A. By B. in favour of C. after D. instead of

55. A. spending B. collecting C. repairing D. advertising

第三部分阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

56. Nearpod can be used to .

A. offer grammar tests

B. teach listening on-line

C. help vocabulary learning

D. gain fluency in speaking

57. If you want to improve your speaking skills, you can go to .

A. Room 501

B. Room 502

C. Room 601

D. Room 602

58. Which of the following can assess your grammar learning.

A. Nearpod

B. Kahoot

C. TEO

D. Prezi

59. A teacher who wants to learn on-line teaching is expected to arrive by _______.

A. 9:00 am

B. 10:30 am

C. 2:00 pm

D. 3:30 pm

B

When her five daughters were young, Helene An always told them that there was strength in unity (团结). To show this, she held up one chopstick, representing one person. Then she easily broke it into two pieces. Next, she tied several chopsticks together, representing a family. She showed the girls it was hard to break the tied chopsticks. This lesson about family unity stayed with the daughters as they grew up.

Helene An and her family own a large restaurant business in California. However, when Helene and her husband Danny left their home in Vietnam in 1975, they didn’t have much money. They moved their family to San Francisco. There they joined Danny’s mother, Dianna, who owned a small Italian sandwich shop. Soon afterwards, Helene and Dianna changed the sandwich shop into a small Vietnamese restaurant. The five daughters helped in the restaurant when they were young. However, Helene did not want her daughters to always work in the family business because she thought it was too hard.

Eventually the girls all graduated from college and went sway to work for themselves, but one by one, the daughters returned to work in the family business. They opened new restaurants in San Francisco and Los Angeles. Even though family members sometimes disagreed with each other, they worked together to make the business successful. Daughters Elizabeth explains, “Our mother taught us that to succeed we must have unity, and to have unity we must have peace. Without the strength of the family, there is no business.”

Their expanding business became a large corporation in 1996, with three generations of Ans working together. Now the Ans’ corporation makes more than $20 million each year. Although they began with a small restaurant, they had big dreams, and they worked together. Now they are a big success.

60. Helene tied several chopsticks together to show .

A. the strength of family unity

B. the difficulty of growing up

C. the advantage of chopsticks

D. the best way of giving a lesson

61. We can learn from Paragraph 2 that the An family ________.

A. started a business in 1975

B. left Vietnam without much money

C. bought a restaurant in San Francisco

D. opened a sandwich shop in Los Angeles

62. What can we infer about the An daughters?

A. They did not finish their college education.

B. They could not bear to work in the family business.

C. They were influenced by what Helene taught them.

D. They were troubled by disagreement among family members.

63. Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?

A. How to Run a Corporation.

B. Strength Comes From Peace.

C. How to Achieve a Big Dream.

D. Family Unity Builds Success.

C

As Internet users become more dependent on the Internet to store information, are people remembering less? If you know your computer will save information, why store it in your own personal memory, your brain? Experts are wondering if the Internet is changing what we remember and how.

In a recent study, Professor Betsy Sparrow conducted some experiments. She and her research team wanted to know how the Internet is changing memory. In the first experiment, they gave people 40 unimportant facts to type into a computer. The first group of people understood that the computer would save the information. The second group understood that the computer would not save it. Later, the second group remembered the information better. People in the first group knew they could find the information again, so

they did not try to remember it.

In another experiment, the researchers gave people facts to remember, and told them where to find the information on the computer. The information was in a specific computer folder (文件夹). Surprisingly, people later remembered the folder location (位置) better than the facts. When people use the Internet, they do not remember the information. Rather, they remember how to find it. This is called “transactive memory (交互记忆).”

According to Sparrow, we are not becoming people with poor memories as a result of the Internet. Instead, computer users are developing stronger transactive memories: that is, people are learning how to organize huge quantities of information so that they are able to access it at a later date. This doesn’t mean we are becoming either more or less intelligent, but there is no doubt that the way we use memory is changing.

64. The passage begins with two questions to__________.

A. introduce the main topic

B. show the autho r’s attitude

C. describe how to use the Internet

D. explain how to store information

65. What can we learn about the first experiment?

A. Sparrow’s team typed the information into a computer.

B. The two groups remembered the information equally well.

C. The first group did not try to understand the information.

D. The second group did not understand the information.

66. In transactive memory, people_________.

A. keep the information in mind

B. change the quantity of information

C. organize information like a computer

D. remember how to find the information

67. What is the effect of the Internet according to Sparrow’s research?

A. We are using memory differently.

B. We are becoming more intelligent.

C. We have poorer memories than before.

D. We need a better way to access information.

D

There are an extremely large number of ants worldwide. Each individual (个体的) ant hardly weighs anything, but put together they weigh roughly the same as all of mankind. They also live nearly everywhere, except on frozen mountain tops and around the poles. For animals their size, ants have been astonishingly successful, largely due to their wonderful behavior.

In colonies (群体) that range in size from a few hundred to tens of millions, they organize their lives with a clear division of labor, ants depend primarily on pheromones (外激素), chemicals sent out by individuals and smelled or tasted by fellow members of their colony. When an ant finds food, it produces a pheromone that will lead others straight to where the food is. When an individual ant comes under attack or is dying, it sends out an pheromone to warn the colony to prepare for a conflict as a defense unit.

In fact, when it comes to the art of war, ants have no equal. They are completely fearless and will readily take on a creature much larger than themselves, attacking in large groups and overcoming their target. Such is their devotion to the common good of the colony that not only soldier ants but also worker ants will sacrifice their lives to help defeat an enemy.

Behavior in this selfless and devoted manner, these little creatures have survived on Earth for more than 140 million years, far longer than dinosaurs. Because they think as one, they have a collective (集体的) intelligence greater than you would expect from its individual parts.

68.We can learn from the passage that ants are _______.

A. not willing to share food

B. not found around the poles

C. more successful than all other animals

D. too many to achieve any level of organization

69.Ants can use pheromones for ______.

A. escape

B. communication

C. warning enemies

D. arranging labor

70.What does the underlined expression “take on” in Paragraph 3 mean?

A.Accept

B. Employ

C. Play with

D. Fight against

71.Which of the following contributes most to the survival of ants?

A.Their behavior

B. Their size

C. Their number

D. Their weight

E

Food serves as a form of communication in two fundamental ways. Sharing bread or other foods is a common human tradition that can promote unity and trust. Food can also have a specific meaning, and play a significant role in a family or culture’s celebrations or traditions. The foods we ea t—and when and how we eat them—are often unique to a particular culture or may even differ between rural (农村的) and urban areas

within one country.

Sharing bread, whether during a special occasion (时刻) or at the family dinner table, is a common symbol of togetherness. Many culture also celebrate birthdays and marriages with cakes that are cut and shared among the guests. Early forms of cake were simply a kind of bread, so this tradition has its roots in the custom of sharing bread.

Food also plays an important role in many New Year celebrations. In the southern United States, pieces of corn bread represent blocks of gold for prosperity (兴旺) in the New Year. In Greece, people share a special cake called vasilopita. A coin is put into the cake, which signifies (预示) success in the New Year for the person who receives it.

Many cultures have ceremonies to celebrate the birth of a child, and food can play a significant role. In China, when a baby is one month old, families name and welcome their child in a celebration that includes giving red-colored eggs to guests. In many cultures, round foods such as grapes, bread, and moon cakes are eaten at welcome celebrations to represent family unity.

Nutrition is necessary for life, so it is not surprising that food is such an important part of different cultures around the world.

72. According to the passage, sharing bread ________.

A. indicates a lack of food

B. can help to develop unity

C. is a custom unique to rural areas

D. has its roots in birthday celebrations

73. What does the coin in vasilopita signify for its receiver in the New Year?

A. Trust

B. Success

C. Health

D. Togetherness

74. The author explains the role of food in celebrations by .

A. using examples

B. making comparison

C. analyzing causes

D. describing process

75.What is the passage mainly about?

A. The custom of sharing food

B. The specific meaning of food

C. The role of food in ceremonies

D. The importance of food in culture

第II卷

第四部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

第一节任务型读写(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)

阅读下面短文,根据所读内容在表格中的空白处填入恰当的单词。

注意:每个空格只填一个单词。

Put a group of strangers in a room together, and they’ll probably start a conversation, “Hot today, isn’t it?” one might say. “You said it.” another replies.

Why do we talk so much about the weather? When we meet new people, we don’t begin by telling them our life story. We start with small talk, a polite conversation about something like traffic or weather.

Research suggests that small talk can build new friendships. When we begin conversation with new people, we want to feel comfortable, and so do they. We use small talk to find common interests. Once we have a common interest, a friendship can begin.

Small talk even helps people get hired. In order to impress at a job interview, you need to bond with the interviewer right away. Proper small talk can make that first impression get you the job.

So, how can you make small talk lead a new friendship or job? First of all, find common ground. Select something around you that you share with the other person.

Next, keep the conversation going. Compliment (赞美) the other person to make him or her feel comfortable, and ask questions to show interest.

Third, keep eye contact (接触). When you look people in the eye, they feel you appreciate what they are saying. It makes you appear honest and builds trust.

Naturally, shy people might not have enough confidence to start up conversations with strangers. Talking to someone you don’t know is not the easiest thing to do! Some experts say with more practice, small talk does get easier.

Some people avoid small talk because they dislike discussing things like traffic or weather. For them, they are just too small. However, when you think about it, small talk is anything but small. If fact, it is actually a very big deal!

第二节书面表达(满分25分)

某英文杂志正在举办以“Fancy yourself as an interviewer”为主题的征文活动,请你以“A Famous Chinese I Would Like to Interview”为题,写一篇英语短文。

内容包括:

1.采访对象;

2.采访的原因;

3. 想提的问题。

注意:

1.词数120左右;

2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;

3.短文中不能出现与本人相关的信息;

4. 短文的标题已给出,不计入总词数。

A Famous Chinese I Would Like to Interview

英语试题参考答案

第一部分:

1. A

2. C

3. A

4. B

5. C

6. B

7. A

8. B

9. C 10. B

11. A 12. B 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. C

第二部分:

21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. B 30. A

31. C 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. A

41. C 42. A 43. D 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. D

51. C 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. A

第三部分:

56. C 57. D 58. B 59. C 60. A 61. B 62. C 3. D 64. A 65. C

66. D 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. D 71. A 72. B 73. B 74. A 75. D

第四部分:

第一节:

76. Deal 77. first 78. Benefits/Advantages

79. new 80. job/position/post 81. shared 82. asking/raising

83. trust 84. Practice (Practise) 85. matters/means

第二节:

One possible version

A Famous Chinese I Would Like to Interview

The person I would like to interview is Yang Liwei.

I would really like to interview him because he is not only the first Chinese to go to space but also one of the greatest astronauts in the world. I have long been interested in space exploration and I believe I could learn a great deal from him about it.

If I could interview him, I would ask him what made him an astronaut and how he was trained. I would also like to know how he felt in space and whether space travel is such great fun as I have read. Finally, I would like to ask a few questions about his personal life, which must be very interesting.

2019年安徽省高考英语试题与答案(Word版)

安徽省高考英语试题与答案 第一部分听力(共两节,满分30分) 做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分) 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 例:How much is the shirt? A. £ 19. 15. B. £ 9. 18. C. £ 9. 15. 答案是 C。 1. What does the woman think of the movie? A.It’s amusing B.It’s exciting C.It’s disappointing 2. How will Susan spend most of her time in France? A. Traveling around B.Studying at a school C.Looking after her aunt 3. What are the speakers talking about? A. Going out B.Ordering drinks C.Preparing for a party 4. Where are the speakers? A.In a classroom B.In a library C.In a bookstore 5. What is the man going to do ? A.Go on the Internet B.Make a phone call C.Take a train trip 第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分) 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。 听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。 6. What is the woman looking for? A. An information office B.A police station C.A shoe repair shop 7. What is the Town Guide according to the man?

2014年高考英语试题及答案全国卷2

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2014年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试新课标II卷 英语 本试卷分第I卷(选择题)和第II卷(非选择题)两部分。考试结束后,将本试卷和答案卡一并交回。 注意事项: 1.答第I卷前考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。 2.选出每小题答案前,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号框,不能答在本试卷上,否则无效。 第一部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分) 第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分40分) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑. A Arriving in Sydney on his own from India, my husband, Rashid, stayed in a hotel for a short time while looking for a short time while looking for a house for me and our children.

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