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衍生产品市场 课后答案 第三章

衍生产品市场 课后答案 第三章
衍生产品市场 课后答案 第三章

Chapter 3

Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies

Question 3.1

This question is a direct application of put-call parity (Equation 3.1) of the textbook. Mimicking Table 3.1, we have:

S&R Index S&R Put Loan Payoff ?(Cost + Interest) Profit

900.00 100.00

?1000.00 0.00 ?95.68 ?95.68

?1000.00 0.00 ?95.68 ?95.68 950.00 50.00

?1000.00 0.00 ?95.68 ?95.68 1000.00 0.00

1050.00 0.00

?1000.00 50.00 ?95.68 ?45.68

?1000.00 100.00 ?95.68 4.32 1100.00 0.00

?1000.00 150.00 ?95.68 54.32 1150.00 0.00

1200.00 0.00

?1000.00 200.00 ?95.68 104.32 The payoff diagram looks as follows:

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 23 We can see from the table and from the payoff diagram that we have replicated a call option payoff with the index, put, and borrowing positions. The profit diagram on the next page shows the profit diagram of our strategy is also the same as that of a call option.

Question 3.2

This question constructs a position that is the opposite of the position of Table 3.1. Therefore, we should get the exact opposite results from Table 3.1 and the associated figures. Mimicking Table 3.1, we have: S&R Index S&R Put Payoff ?(Cost + Interest) Profit

?900.00 ?100.00 ?1000.00 1095.68 95.68

?950.00 ?50.00 ?1000.00 1095.68 95.68

?1000.00 1095.68 95.68 ?1000.00 0.00

?1050.00 0.00

?1050.00 1095.68 45.68

?1100.00 1095.68 ?4.32

?1100.00 0.00

?1150.00 1095.68 ?54.32

?1150.00 0.00

?1200.00 0.00

?1200.00 1095.68 ?104.32

On the next page, we see the corresponding payoff and profit diagrams. Please note that they match the combined payoff and profit diagrams of Figure 3.5. Only the axes have different scales.

24 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets Payoff-diagram:

Profit diagram:

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 25

Question 3.3

In order to be able to draw profit diagrams, we need to find the future value (FV) of the index cost, the put premium, the call premium, and the investment in zero-coupon bonds. We have:

FV of index cost:

1000(10.02)$1020FV of the put premium:$51.777(10.02)$52.813

FV of the call premium:$120.405(10.02)$122.813

FV of the zero-coupon bond:$931.37(10.02)$950.00×+=×+=×+=×+=

Our index plus put position has a FV cost of $1072.813. Our payoff diagram is:

From this figure, we can already see that the combination of a long put and the long index looks exactly like a certain payoff of $950, plus the payoff of a call with a strike price of 950 (i.e.,max(0,950)).T S ? This is the alternative investment given to us in the question. Its FV cost is 950122.8131072.813+= which is exactly the same as our index plus put position. We have thus confirmed the equivalence of the two combined positions for the payoff diagrams. Since the costs are the same, the profit diagrams for the two are identical.

26 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets

Profit diagram for a long 950-strike put and a long index (which is the same as the profit diagram for a bond plus call strategy):

Question 3.4

This question is another application of put-call-parity. For our initial cost, we receive $1,000 from the short sale of the index and we have to pay the call premium which is $120.405. Using Question 3.3’s

FV calculations, the future value of the funds we receive is 1020122.813897.187.

?= It is often confusing to use the term “cost” in this context (when we receive money initially). It can be done, but you must be careful about “plusses and minuses”. Initial cash inflows can be looked at as negative costs and initial cash outflows as positive costs; it might be easiest to just think of cash flows. Positive cash flows are greater than zero and negative cash flows are less than zero. In this case, the future value of our

cost is: ($120.405$1,000)(10.02)$897.187.

?×+=? Note that there is a negative cost which means that we initially receive money. The payoff diagram of the short index plus long call position is:

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 27 We can see from the figure that the payoff graph of the short index plus the long call is the same as a fixed obligation of $950 plus a long put position with a strike price of 950. Again, using Question 3.3’s FV calculations, the future value of our cost is 95052.813897.187

?+=? which is the same as the short index/buy call strategy. Since the two strategies have the same payoff and same costs, the profit diagrams for the two are the same. In this case we add $897.187 to the payoff diagrams; this is due to receiving money initially (i.e., negative initial costs). The profit diagrams for the two are:

Question 3.5

This question is another application of put-call-parity. For the initial cash flow, we receive $1,000 from shorting the index and we pay $71.802 for the call, which amounts to receiving $928.20 initially (i.e., there is a negative initial cost). This has a future value of $946.76. The payoff diagram is:

28 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets

We can see from the figure that the payoff graph of the short index and the long call looks like a fixed obligation of $1,050 and a long put position with a strike price of $1,050. The future value of the initial cash flow is $1,050101.214 1.02946.76?×= which is identical to the future value of our original short index/buy call strategy. Hence the two strategies have identical payoffs and identical costs, which implies they have identical profit diagrams (which add 946.76 to the payoff):

Question 3.6

Instead of relying on a graphical representation and verification of put-call-parity, this question uses a

mathematical verification. Let us first consider the payoff of Part (1). If we buy the index for $1,000 today, we receive a payoff of simply T S where T S denotes the value of the index in six months.

The payoffs of Part (2) are a slightly more complicated. It is convenient to draw a payoff table that splits the future values of the index into two cases: one where the put is in-the-money (i.e., )T S K < and another where the call is in-the-money (i.e., ).

T S K ≥ Note we include the case where T S K =with the latter case, but this does not affect our results.

We have for the payoffs in Part (2):

Instrument

950T S K <= 950T S K ≥= Get repayment of loan

$931.37 1.02$950×= $931.37 1.02$950×=Long Call Option

0 950T S ?Short Put Option

(950)T S ?? 0

$950T S =?

Total T S T S We see that the total aggregate position gives us T S for both cases; this is also the same payoff as in

Part (1).

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 29

We could explain the table above by looking at the trades that occur with our strategy. Since the options have the same strike price, only one of the options can have value. If the put option is in-the-money, i.e., 950,T S < we are required to buy the index for $950 (the funds come from our bond investment). This is due to the fact we wrote the put option. If the call option is in-the-money, i.e., 950,T S ≥ we will choose to exercise it by buying the index for $950 (again, the funds come from our bond investment). Hence, regardless of the value of the future index, our position will always be worth the index value in six months.

Now let us turn to the profits. If we buy the index today, we need to finance it. Therefore, we borrow $1,000 and have to repay $1,020 after one year. The profit for Part (1) is thus: $1,020.T S ?

The profits of the aggregate position in Part (2) are the payoffs, less the future value (FV) of the call

premium, plus the FV of the put premium (because we have sold the put), and less the FV of the loan we gave initially. Note, when looking at our profits, we could omit any calculations pertaining to risk free

borrowing and lending; however, we include it here just to highlight this point. We now tabulate the profit:

Instrument

T S K < T S K ≥ FV of initial lending

$931.37 1.02$950×=$931.37 1.02$950×=Loan Cash Flow

$950?$950?Long Call Option

0950T S ?FV Call premium

$120.405 1.02$122.813?×=?$120.405 1.02$122.81?×=?Short Put Option

$950T S ?0FV Put premium

$51.777 1.02$52.81×=$51.777 1.02$52.81×=Total 1020T S ?1020

T S ?Indeed, we see that the profits for Parts (1) and (2) are identical as well.

Question 3.7

Let us first consider the payoff of (a). If we short the index (let us name it S ), we have to pay at the time of expiration T of the options: .T S ?

For the payoffs of Part (2), let us look at each position separately for two scenarios and aggregate:

Instrument

T S K < T S K ≥ Make repayment of loan

$1029.41 1.02$1050?×=?$1029.41 1.02$1050?×=?Short Call Option

01050T S ?Long Put Option

$1050T S =?0

Total T S ?T

S ?We see that the total aggregate position gives us ,T S ? no matter what the final index value is—but this is the same payoff as Part (1). Our proof for the payoff equivalence is complete.

Now let us turn to the profits. If we sell the index today, we receive money that we can lend out. Therefore, we can lend $1,000 and be repaid $1,020 after one year. The profit for Part (1) is thus: $1,020.T S ?

30 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets

The profits of the aggregate position in Part (2) are the payoffs, less the future value (FV) of the put

premium, plus the FV of the call premium (because we sold the call), and less the FV of the loan we gave initially. As mentioned in the answer to Question 3.6, when looking at our profits, we could omit any calculations pertaining to risk free borrowing and lending; however, we include it here just to highlight this point. We can again tabulate the profit:

Instrument

T S K < T S K ≥ Make repayment of loan

?$1,050?$1,50 FV of borrowed money

$1,029.41 1.02$1,050×=$1,029.41 1.02$1,050×=Short Call Option

0$1,050T S ?FV of Call premium

$71.802 1.02$73.24×=$71.802 1.02$73.24×=Long Put Option

$1,050T S ?0 FV of Put premium

$101.214 1.02$103.24?×=?$101.214 1.02$103.24?×=?Total $1,020T S ?$1,020T

S ?Indeed, we see that the profits for Parts (1) and (2) are identical as well.

Question 3.8

This question is a direct application of Put-Call-Parity. We use Equation (3.1) in the following and input the given variables:

0,0,Call(,)Put(,)()Call(,)Put(,)()$109.20$60.18$1,020/1.02/1.02

$970.00T T K T K T PV F K K T K T PV F K K K ?=??

??=??

??=??=

Question 3.9

The strategy of buying a call (or put) and selling a call (or put) at a higher strike is called a call (put) bull spread. In order to draw the profit diagrams, we need to find the future value of the cost of entering in the bull spread positions. We have:

Cost of call bull spread: ($120.405$93.809) 1.02$27.13Cost of put bull spread: ($51.777$74.201) 1.02$22.87

?×=?×=? The payoff diagram shows that the payoff to the put bull spread is uniformly less than the payoff to the call bull spread. This difference is because the put bull spread has a negative initial cost, i.e., we are receiving money if we enter into it. The difference between the payoffs is exactly $50 which is the difference between the two strike prices.

The higher initial cost for the call bull spread is exactly offset by the higher payoff so that the profits of both strategies are the same. Combining Put-Call Parity for a 1000-strike and a 950-strike, we have

Call(950,)Call(1000,)Put(950,)Put(1000,)50/1.02.T T T T ?=?+

Hence the initial cost of a call bull spread equals the initial cost of a put bull spread plus the difference in the present value of the strike prices. Below are the respective payoff and profit diagrams.

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 31 Payoff-Diagram:

Profit diagram:

Question 3.10

The strategy of selling a call (or put) and buying a call (or put) at a higher strike is called call (put) bear spread. In order to draw the profit diagrams, we need to find the future value of the cost of entering in the bull spread positions. We have:

Cost of call bull spread: ($71.802$120.405) 1.02$49.575Cost of put bull spread: ($101.214$51.777) 1.02$50.426

?×=??×=

32 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets

The payoff diagram shows that the payoff to the call bear spread is uniformly less than the payoff to the put bear spread. The difference is exactly $100, equal to the difference in strikes and as well equal to the difference in the future value of the costs of the spreads.

There is a difference, because the call bear spread has a negative initial cost, i.e., we are receiving money if we enter into it.

The higher initial cost for the put bear spread is exactly offset by the higher payoff so that the profits of both strategies turn out to be the same.

Payoff-Diagram:

Profit Diagram:

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 33

Question 3.11

In order to draw the profit diagram, we need to find the future value of the costs of establishing the suggested position. We purchase the index for $1,000, buy the 950-strike put for $51.777, and we sell a call for $71.802. Therefore, the future value of our cost is:

?+×=

($1,000$71.802$51.777) 1.02$999.57.

Now we can draw the profit diagram:

The net option premium cost today is: $71.802$51.777$20.025.

?+=? We receive about $20 if we enter into this collar. If we want to construct a zero-cost collar and keep the 950-strike put, we would need to increase the strike price of the call, making it less valuable (i.e., closer to 51.777). By receiving a lower premium from the call, we can participate in more upside with our index purchase due to the higher strike price (of the call we wrote).

Question 3.12

Buying the put and selling the call gives an initial cash flow of: $51.777$51.873$0.096.

?+= Equivalently, we could also say our initial cost is $51.777$51.873$0.096;

?=?negative costs imply we receive money when we set up our collar. The 10 cents we receive is very close to a zero-cost collar.

34 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets The profit diagram is:

If we compare this profit diagram with the profit diagram of the previous Exercise (3.11), we see that we traded the additional call premium (that more than paid for our put option) for more participation on the upside. Note that both the maximum loss and gain are higher than in Question 3.11.

Question 3.13

The following figure depicts the requested profit diagrams. We can see that the aggregation of the bought and sold straddle resembles a bear spread. It is bearish, because we sold the straddle with the smaller strike price.

To arrive at doing both straddles, we can “rearrange” the instruments. Using the notation Put K for a K-strike put option (similarly with call options),

9509501050105095010509501050Put Call Put Call Put Put Call Call ??++=?+?+

In other words, we have two bear spreads (a put bear spread plus a call bear spread). Loosely speaking, our two volatility bets (short and long straddles) offset each other; instead they turn into two directional bets which are bearish since we sold the straddle with the smaller strike price (which pays off close to 950) and bought the straddle with the higher strike price (which pays off away from 1050).

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 35

Question 3.14

1. This question deals with the option trading strategy known as Box spread. We saw earlier that

complicated strategy payoffs become simplified if we look at the option payoffs separately under different ranges of the index (at expiration) and add the individual payoffs up. Let us denote the final value of the S&R index as .T S We have two strike prices, therefore we will use three regions: One in which 950,T S < one in which 9501,000T S ≤< and another one in which 1,000.T S ≥

Instrument 950T S < 9501,000T S ≤< 1,000T S ≥

Long 950 call 0 $950T S ? $950

T S ?Short 1000 call 0 0 $1000T

S ,?Short 950 put $950T S ?0 0

Long 1000 put

$1000T S ,? $1000T S ,? 0Total $50 $50 $50

We see that there is no occurrence of the final index value ()T S in the total. The option position does

not contain S&R price risk.

This strategy is simple if we think of the trades as synthetic forwards. By buying a 950-strike call and

shorting a 950-strike put we have created a synthetic long forward position (we are going to buy the index for 950). Similarly, by selling a 1000-strike call and buying a 1000-strike put we have created a synthetic short forward position (we are going to sell the index for 1000). Hence, regardless of the index price, we are locked into paying $950 for the index and selling it for $1000, giving us a set payoff of $50.

2. The initial cost is the sum of the long option premia less the premia we receive for the sold options.

We have:

Cost = $120405$93809$5177$74201$49027.?.?.+.=.

3. The payoff of the position after 6 months is $50, as we can see from the above table.

4. The implicit interest rate of the cash flows is: $5000$490271019102.÷.=.?.. The implicit interest

rate is indeed 2%. We have created a way of lending using options. Reversing the positions would be a way of synthetic borrowing (we would receive $49.027 today and pay $50 in six months).

36 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets

Question 3.15

1. Profit diagram of the 1:2 950-, 1050-strike ratio call spread (the future value of the initial cost of

which is calculated as: ($1204052$71802)102$2366):

.?×.×.=?.

2. Profit diagram of the 2:3 950-, 1050-strike ratio call spread (the future value of the initial cost of

which is calculated as: (2$1204053$71802)102$2591.

×.?×.×.=.

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 37

3. We saw that in Part (1), we were receiving money from our position, and in Part (2), we had to pay

a net option premium to establish the position. This suggests that the true ratio n /m lies between 1:2 and 2:3.

Indeed, we can calculate the ratio n /m as:

$120405$718020

$120405$71802$71802$1204050596n m n m n m n m ×.?×.=?×.=×.?

/=./.?

/=.

which is approximately 3:5.

Question 3.16

In order for an option strategy to have a zero premium (i.e., zero initial cost), we must have some scenario we have a negative payoff for, otherwise, our profit would always be greater than zero. To put it another way, if something costs nothing today and gave you a positive payoff in the future, every investor would demand this strategy. Since derivatives have two sides to every trade, there would be no one to take the opposite side. This is the concept of “arbitrage” which is the basis for derivative pricing. A call bull spread and a put bear spread have positive payoffs (more precisely, there is no scenario in which the payoff is negative). Hence there must be a strictly positive initial cost.

The same holds for a butterfly spread; as we will see in Problem 3.18, we can create a butterfly spread using only calls that have a payoff that is always greater than or equal to zero (hence must cost money). For now, we can look at the butterfly spread as a written straddle plus the purchase of a lower strike put and higher strike call (to protect the extreme outcomes). For example, if we write a 40-strike straddle, we can purchase a 35-strike put and a 45-strike call. From the previous discussion on bull and bear spreads, the 35-strike put we bought is worth strictly less than the 40-strike put we sold. Similarly, the 45-strike call we bought is worth strictly less than the 40-strike call we wrote. Hence we must receive a premium (i.e., the butterfly spread is never zero cost).

Question 3.17

From the textbook we learn how to calculate the right ratio λ. It is equal to:

3231105010200.31050950K K K K λ??=

==??

38 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets

In order to construct the asymmetric butterfly, for every 1020-strike call we write, we buy λ 950-strike calls and 1 ?λ 1050-strike calls. Since we can only buy whole units of calls, we will in this example buy three 950-strike and seven 1050-strike calls, and sell ten 1020-strike calls. The profit diagram looks as follows:

Question 3.18

The following three figures show the individual legs of each of the three suggested strategies. The last subplot shows the aggregate position. It is evident from the figures that you can indeed use all the suggested strategies to construct the same butterfly spread. Another method to show the claim of 3.18. mathematically would be to establish the equivalence by using the Put-Call-Parity on Parts (2) and (3) and showing that you can write it in terms of the instruments of Part (1).

Profit diagram Part (1)

Chapter 3 Insurance, Collars, and Other Strategies 39 Profit diagram Part (2)

Profit diagram Part (3)

40 McDonald ? Fundamentals of Derivatives Markets

Question 3.19

1. We know from put-call-parity that if we buy a call and sell a put that are at-the-money (i.e., the stock

price is currently equal to the strike price), then the call option is slightly more expensive than the put option, the difference being the value of the stock minus the present value of the strike. Therefore, we can tell that the strike price must be a bit higher than the current stock price.

Using put-call parity, if the put and call premiums are equal, the strike price is equal to forward price

(i.e., 0PV()PV()).T K F ,= In this case, it is zero cost to lock in a fixed purchase price of the stock using this specific strike price (i.e., the synthetic forward positions are zero cost when the strike is equal to the current forward price).

2. As discussed above, we’ve created a long forward contract (i.e., we have a long forward position at

the current forward price).

3. With our synthetic long forward position, we are locking in our purchase price at the strike price K .

If the strike price has the bid-ask spread incorporated into it (i.e., we have a net premium of zero

inclusive of the bid-ask spread), we must be spending more than the current forward price,

i.e., 0.T K F ,> The difference being the bid-ask spread.

4. With our synthetic short forward position, we are locking in our sales price at the strike price K . If the

strike price has the bid-ask spread incorporated into it (i.e., we have a net premium of zero inclusive of the bid-ask spread), we must be receiving less than the current forward price, i.e., 0.T K F ,< The difference being the bid-ask spread.

5. No, transaction fees are not a wash, because we are implicitly paying the bid-ask spread. If we

entered into a long forward contract, we would get a payoff/profit equal to the future stock price less the forward price. Now, we established in Part (3) that the strike price is higher than the forward

price. Therefore, we will receive from the synthetic long forward of Part (3), the stock price less a larger strike price. Hence we are worse off than the forward contract. Of course, there is likely to be a bid-ask spread and/or brokerage fees on the forward contract as well (or the brokerage fee and bid-ask spread on the stock itself). The lesson being, it is important to be aware of transaction costs (both implicit and explicit) when comparing different investment strategies.

Question 3.20

Use separate cells for the strike price and the quantities you buy and sell for each strike (i.e., make use of the plus or minus sign). Then, use the maximum function to calculate payoffs and profits.

The best way to solve this problem is probably to have the calculations necessary for the payoff and profit diagrams run in the background, e.g., in another auxiliary table that you are referencing. Define the

boundaries for the calculations dynamically and symmetrically around the current stock price. Then use the diagram function with the line style to draw the diagrams.

自动控制原理第三章课后习题-答案(最新)

3-1 设系统的微分方程式如下: (1) )(2)(2.0t r t c =& (2) )()()(24.0)(04.0t r t c t c t c =++&&& 试求系统闭环传递函数Φ(s),以及系统的单位脉冲响应g(t)和单位阶跃响应c(t)。已知全部初始条件为零。 解: (1) 因为)(2)(2.0s R s sC = 闭环传递函数s s R s C s 10)()()(==Φ 单位脉冲响应:s s C /10)(= 010 )(≥=t t g 单位阶跃响应c(t) 2/10)(s s C = 010)(≥=t t t c (2))()()124.004.0(2s R s C s s =++ 124.004.0)()(2++= s s s R s C 闭环传递函数1 24.004.01)()()(2++==s s s R s C s φ 单位脉冲响应:124.004.01)(2++=s s s C t e t g t 4sin 3 25)(3-= 单位阶跃响应h(t) 16)3(61]16)3[(25)(22+++-=++= s s s s s s C t e t e t c t t 4sin 4 34cos 1)(33----= 3-2 温度计的传递函数为1 1+Ts ,用其测量容器内的水温,1min 才能显示出该温度的98%的数值。若加热容器使水温按10oC/min 的速度匀速上升,问温度计的稳态指示误差有多大? 解法一 依题意,温度计闭环传递函数 1 1)(+=ΦTs s 由一阶系统阶跃响应特性可知:o o T c 98)4(=,因此有 min 14=T ,得出 min 25.0=T 。 视温度计为单位反馈系统,则开环传递函数为 Ts s s s G 1)(1)()(=Φ-Φ= ? ??==11v T K 用静态误差系数法,当t t r ?=10)( 时,C T K e ss ?=== 5.21010。

医学统计学第七版课后答案及解析知识分享

医学统计学第七版课后答案及解析

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摘要 近10年来,全球金融衍生工具市场成交量迅猛发展,仅交易所交易的金融衍生工具合约的名义价值就是全球股票市值的几十倍,而且正在以每年20%以上的速度成长。一方面,金融衍生工具由于其成交活跃、成本低廉,为各类企业、机构投资者和个人投资者提供了对冲风险的手段,从而为它们稳定了收入预期,增加了收益并转移了不愿承担的风险。正如默顿·米勒自信的指出,这些金融产品使企业和机构有效且经济地处理困扰自己没有几百年也有几十年的风险成为可能金融衍生工具使世界变得更加安全而不是更加危险;另一方面,金融衍生工具交易中又不断暴露出巨额损失、公司倒闭等爆炸性事件。这使得金融衍生工具在学术界、业界和金融监管层中都饱受争议。尽管如此,越来越多的衍生工具正被创造出来,越来越多的公司和投资者在利用衍生工具管理风险,衍生工具在金融创新中的作用越来越重要,公司和个人的理财活动越来越离不开衍生工具。本文主要研究商业银行金融衍生品及其市场的概况,以及股票衍生工具,股票指数衍生工具。 关键词:金融衍生品衍生市场期货期权

Abstract The derivative instruments make the world safer not more dangerous. These financial products make enterprises and institutions to deal effectively and economically troubled himself not hundreds of years also have decades of risk possible. ——Mertonian miller《The derivative instruments》In recent years, the global financial derivatives market volume rapid development. Today, the only exchange of financial derivatives in the name of the contract value is global in stock value, and a few times a year are rate of more than 20% growth. On one hand, financial derivatives due to its active, low cost, clinch a deal for the of all kinds enterprise, institutional investors and individual investors provides the means, and hedge risk for their stable income expected earnings and transfer, increased the does not want to assume the risk, On the other hand, financial derivatives trading and constantly exposed huge losses, the company went bankrupt and other explosive events. This makes financial derivatives in academia, industry and financial supervision in layer controversial. Even so, more and more derivatives instruments are being created, more and more companies and investors in the use of derivatives risk management, derivatives instruments in the role of financial innovation is more and more important, the company and personal finance activities more and more from derivatives instruments. China's derivatives market although start later, but the development of the world over the past few years to the sit up and take notice. Part of our agricultural futures contract turnover among the most actively traded futures contract of the top 10, we in the three years ago which was just as equity division reform affiliate products of authority card was becoming the world's most active authority card market, derivatives have in the financial

贾俊平统计学 第七版 课后思考题

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